Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

3. A client is starting a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Rise slowly from a sitting position.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes.
• D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting enalapril is to avoid salt substitutes. Salt substitutes may contain potassium, which could lead to elevated potassium levels when combined with enalapril, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific need to take enalapril with food, rise slowly from a sitting position, or avoid exposure to sunlight when taking this medication.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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