Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

2. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Serum creatinine.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch where the old patch was.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because applying the patch to an area of skin without hair ensures better absorption of the medication. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a clean, hairless area for proper medication delivery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Cleaning the site with an alcohol swab is a good practice but does not specifically indicate understanding of proper patch application. Rotating application sites weekly is important to prevent skin irritation but is not directly related to applying the patch to an area of skin without hair. Placing the new patch where the old patch was may lead to skin irritation and poor absorption of the medication.

5. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

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