Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
• B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
• C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
• D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.

2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Dexamethasone?

• A. Inflammation
• B. Asthma
• C. Addison’s disease
• D. Wilson’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dexamethasone is not used to treat Wilson’s disease. It is a corticosteroid primarily used for conditions like inflammation, asthma, and Addison’s disease. Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder involving copper accumulation and is treated with medications like chelating agents or zinc salts, not Dexamethasone.

3. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

5. A patient with hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor to lower blood pressure. What should the nurse advise the patient to avoid in their diet?

• A. Vinegar
• B. Apples
• C. Salt substitutes
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking ACE inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes as they often contain potassium, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium in the blood that can be dangerous, especially for patients on ACE inhibitors. Vinegar, apples, and tomatoes do not pose a risk for patients taking ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to avoid salt substitutes to prevent potential complications.

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