Nursing Elites

1. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

2. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
• B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
• C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
• D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

3. In a 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reporting increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and cough, which finding would indicate a potential exacerbation of his COPD?

• A. Increased wheezing
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Improved exercise tolerance
• D. Decreased sputum production

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased wheezing. In COPD exacerbations, there is a worsening of symptoms such as increased wheezing due to airway inflammation and narrowing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate would not be expected in COPD exacerbation as it is usually a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Improved exercise tolerance is not a typical finding in exacerbations but rather a sign of improvement. Decreased sputum production is also not indicative of exacerbation, as exacerbations are often associated with increased sputum production.

4. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?

• A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
• B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
• C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
• D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.

5. After teaching the students about B cells, which statement indicates teaching was successful? B cells are originally derived from cells of the:

• A. Bone marrow
• B. Lymph nodes
• C. Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
• D. Thymus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow. B cells are originally derived from cells of the bone marrow. Bone marrow is the primary site where B cells develop and mature. Lymph nodes (choice B), gut-associated lymphoid tissue (choice C), and the thymus (choice D) are involved in the immune response but are not the primary site of origin for B cells.

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