Nursing Elites

1. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

2. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?

• A. It is metabolized in the liver.
• B. It binds to acetylcholine.
• C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
• D. It causes phagocytosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.

3. A patient is starting on atorvastatin (Lipitor) for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with alcohol to reduce the risk of liver damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking it at night aligns with the body's natural rhythm of cholesterol production, optimizing its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can increase the risk of side effects by affecting the metabolism of atorvastatin. Choice C is incorrect as taking atorvastatin in the morning does not maximize its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol consumption can increase the risk of liver damage when combined with atorvastatin.

4. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

5. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?

• A. Serotonin receptors
• B. Uric acid metabolism
• C. Liver function
• D. Cardiac function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.

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