Nursing Elites

1. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

2. When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:

• A. A reduced immune response found in most pathologic states
• B. A normal immune response to an infectious agent
• C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
• D. Antigenic desensitization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypersensitivity is correctly defined as an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. This response leads to tissue damage or other clinical manifestations. Choice A is incorrect as hypersensitivity involves an exaggerated, not a reduced, immune response. Choice B is incorrect because hypersensitivity is not a normal immune response to an infectious agent but rather an exaggerated one. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to desensitization, which is the opposite of hypersensitivity.

3. A patient with hypogonadism is being treated with testosterone gel. What application instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Testosterone gel should be applied to the chest or upper arms and allowed to dry completely before dressing to avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, genitals, scalp, or back is not recommended as these areas may lead to unintentional transfer to others, inappropriate absorption, or potential side effects. Choice A is incorrect as applying the gel to the face and neck can lead to unwanted transfer. Choice C is incorrect as applying the gel to the genitals is not the recommended site for application. Choice D is incorrect as the scalp and back are not appropriate sites for applying testosterone gel.

4. In a patient with HIV infected with Mycobacterium avium complex from an indoor pool, which of the following medications is the recommended treatment for MAC?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Isoniazid (INH)
• C. Rifabutin
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Clarithromycin. Clarithromycin is one of the recommended medications for treating Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections in patients with HIV. It is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against MAC. Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat tuberculosis, not MAC. Rifabutin is another medication used in the treatment of MAC infections, but clarithromycin is preferred as a first-line agent. Azithromycin is also used in the treatment of MAC infections; however, clarithromycin is more commonly recommended due to its efficacy and safety profile.

5. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

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