Nursing Elites

1. A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?

• A. Transmission
• B. Primary infection
• C. Latent tuberculosis
• D. Active tuberculosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.

2. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:

• A. Contain no RNA or DNA
• B. Are capable of independent reproduction
• C. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
• D. Are killed easily by antimicrobials

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.

3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

• A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
• B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
• C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
• D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

4. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding potential side effects?

• A. Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea
• B. Increased appetite, insomnia, and fatigue
• C. Breast tenderness, headaches, and dizziness
• D. Fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea are common side effects of oral contraceptives. Weight gain may occur due to fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Mood changes can be caused by hormonal fluctuations. Nausea is a common side effect that usually improves after a few months of use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect common side effects associated with oral contraceptives. Increased appetite, insomnia, breast tenderness, headaches, dizziness, fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain are not typically reported side effects of oral contraceptives.

5. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

• A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
• B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
• C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
• D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.

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