Nursing Elites

1. A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:

• A. Subacute thyroiditis.
• B. Autoimmune thyroiditis.
• C. Graves disease.
• D. Hashimoto’s disease.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic features of Graves disease, an autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial edema (swelling in the lower legs) are particularly associated with Graves disease due to the autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland, leading to increased thyroid hormone production. Subacute thyroiditis (Choice A) typically presents with neck pain and tenderness, while autoimmune thyroiditis (Choice B) is commonly known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which presents with hypothyroidism symptoms. Hashimoto's disease (Choice D) is characterized by goiter and hypothyroidism, which contrasts with the hyperthyroidism seen in this patient.

2. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.

3. A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?

• A. General visceral efferent neurons
• B. Preganglionic neurons
• C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
• D. Pharyngeal efferent neurons

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pharyngeal efferent neurons. Pharyngeal efferent neurons are responsible for controlling head movements, including side-to-side motions. General visceral efferent neurons (Choice A) are involved in innervating smooth muscles and glands in the body's internal organs. Preganglionic neurons (Choice B) are part of the autonomic nervous system and connect the central nervous system to the ganglia. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (Choice C) are the second neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway, responsible for innervating target organs. In this case, the issue with moving the head from side to side indicates a problem with the pharyngeal efferent neurons.

4. Which statement best conveys an aspect of the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

• A. CSF provides immune protection to the brain and spinal cord by serving as a physical barrier.
• B. CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury.
• C. CSF plays a limited role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and brain.
• D. CSF functions primarily as a medium for the transmission of nerve impulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cerebrospinal fluid primarily cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. Choice A is incorrect because while CSF contributes to the brain's immune environment, its main role is not providing immune protection as a physical barrier. Choice C is incorrect because CSF has a significant role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products, rather than a limited one. Choice D is incorrect as CSF is not primarily a medium for nerve impulse transmission, but rather serves as a protective and supportive fluid.

5. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

• A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
• B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
• C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
• D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

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