Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma?

• A. Bronchospasm after exercise
• B. IgE-mediated inflammatory response to antigen
• C. Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods
• D. Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronchospasm after exercise.' Exercise-induced asthma involves the narrowing of the airways (bronchospasm) triggered by physical activity. This bronchospasm leads to symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because exercise-induced asthma is not primarily caused by an IgE-mediated inflammatory response to an antigen, bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods, or increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation.

2. A patient is starting on oral contraceptives. What should the nurse emphasize about the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day?

• A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures effectiveness.
• B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
• C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
• D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary emphasis of consistent timing is on hormone levels and effectiveness, not on reducing breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because while consistent absorption is a factor, the main focus is on maintaining stable hormone levels. Choice D is incorrect as missing doses can significantly impact contraceptive efficacy.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
• B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
• C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

5. What typically causes contact dermatitis?

• A. Fungal infection
• B. Long-term disorder from gout
• C. Contact with a skin allergen
• D. Staphylococcal infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact dermatitis is typically caused by contact with a skin allergen that triggers an allergic reaction. Choice A, fungal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is not caused by fungi. Choice B, long-term disorder from gout, is also incorrect as gout is not typically associated with contact dermatitis. Choice D, Staphylococcal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is primarily an allergic reaction rather than a bacterial infection.

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