Nursing Elites

1. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?

• A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
• B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
• C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
• D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.

2. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

• A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation
• B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
• C. Alkalosis and high potassium
• D. Elevated sodium and acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

• A. Does your son experience nausea or vomiting when he has a headache?
• B. Does your son have a history of recent head injury?
• C. Does your son become sensitive to light when he has a headache?
• D. Does anyone in your family have a history of migraines?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking about a history of recent head injury is less likely to yield data relevant to confirming or ruling out migraines. Migraines are often associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a family history of migraines. While head injuries can cause headaches, the focus of the assessment in this case should be on symptoms more specific to migraines to guide the diagnosis and management.

4. A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching regarding the expected outcomes of this therapy?

• A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
• B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
• C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
• D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable, so patients should be informed about this expected time frame. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is a side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment. Choice D is also incorrect as decreased libido is a potential side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

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