a nurse is explaining to a patient the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and explains that secondary immunodeficienc
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A healthcare provider is explaining to a patient the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and explains that secondary immunodeficiencies (select ONE that does not apply):

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statements about secondary immunodeficiencies are that they may develop after viral infections, following immunosuppressive therapies, and are caused by superimposed conditions. Choice B ('Develop before birth') is incorrect because secondary immunodeficiencies do not develop before birth. They are acquired later in life. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C, and D.

2. A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculosis. Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are classic findings seen in tuberculosis. This infectious disease commonly presents with symptoms such as chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Pneumonia (Choice B) typically does not present with cavitary lesions on chest X-ray. Lung cancer (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely to cause cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. Sarcoidosis (Choice D) usually presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas, different from the cavitary lesions described in the case.

3. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dark urine. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can cause the urine to appear dark or tea-colored, a condition known as myoglobinuria. This is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present as direct symptoms of rhabdomyolysis. Paresthesias refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, bone pain is not a primary symptom of rhabdomyolysis, and diarrhea is not a common complaint associated with this condition.

4. What causes the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Air trapping in the alveoli. A barrel chest in emphysema results from the hyperinflation of the lungs due to air trapping in the alveoli. This leads to increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema is swelling caused by fluid retention in tissues, not associated with a barrel chest in emphysema. Bacterial infections in the lungs can lead to conditions like pneumonia but do not directly cause a barrel chest. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm could affect breathing mechanics but is not specifically linked to the development of a barrel chest in emphysema.

5. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.

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