Nursing Elites

1. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• C. Increased risk of bone fractures
• D. Increased risk of breast cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of liver dysfunction. Testosterone therapy can lead to liver dysfunction, including cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis. This adverse effect necessitates monitoring of liver function tests during testosterone therapy. Choice B, increased risk of prostate cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy does not cause prostate cancer but is contraindicated in patients with known or suspected prostate cancer. Choice C, increased risk of bone fractures, is incorrect as testosterone therapy is actually associated with an increase in bone mineral density, reducing the risk of fractures. Choice D, increased risk of breast cancer, is incorrect because testosterone therapy in males does not increase the risk of breast cancer.

2. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

3. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?

• A. The kidneys remove hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate ions.
• B. The kidneys convert ammonia into urea, which is excreted in the urine.
• C. The kidneys produce aldosterone to regulate sodium levels.
• D. The kidneys secrete renin to regulate blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.

4. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

• A. A blow to the head from a hard object
• B. Lack of blood flow to part of the brain
• C. Excessive exercise, such as running
• D. A ruptured artery in the heart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke, is often caused by a lack of blood flow to part of the brain. This leads to damage in the brain tissue due to the deprived oxygen and nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A blow to the head from a hard object can cause a traumatic brain injury but is not the etiology of a CVA. Excessive exercise like running does not typically lead to a stroke. A ruptured artery in the heart may result in a heart attack, not a cerebrovascular accident.

5. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?

• A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
• B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
• C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
• D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

Similar Questions