ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Right lower quadrant cramping
- B. Severe bloody diarrhea
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mostly affects the rectum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.
2. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Kidney function tests
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During estradiol therapy, monitoring liver function tests is essential due to the potential for liver dysfunction. Estradiol can affect liver function, making it crucial to monitor enzyme levels. Choice A, blood glucose levels, is not directly impacted by estradiol therapy, making it an incorrect choice. Choice C, kidney function tests, is not typically affected by estradiol therapy, so it is not the priority for monitoring. Choice D, blood pressure, is also not the primary parameter to monitor during estradiol therapy unless there are pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
3. A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching regarding the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
- B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
- C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
- D. The medication may decrease libido.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable, so patients should be informed about this expected time frame. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is a side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment. Choice D is also incorrect as decreased libido is a potential side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment.
4. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin diseases is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?
- A. Psoriasis
- B. Melanoma
- C. Atopic dermatitis
- D. Urticaria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer because it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by features such as angiogenesis (formation of new blood vessels), immune cell activation (especially T cells), and excessive keratinocyte proliferation. This results in the typical symptoms seen in psoriasis, such as red, scaly patches on the skin. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer arising from melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Atopic dermatitis is a different skin condition involving eczematous changes, not specifically associated with the described characteristics of psoriasis. Urticaria is a skin condition characterized by hives and does not involve the same pathophysiological processes as psoriasis.
5. What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?
- A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) defects
- B. Monogenic mutations, sedentary lifestyle, and high cholesterol diet
- C. Polygenic mutations and environmental factors
- D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.
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