ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:
- A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attacking his motor neurons.
- B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
- C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons. Choice A is incorrect because SMA is not caused by ingesting bacteria from playing in soil. Choice B is incorrect as SMA is not something that a person grows out of. Choice D is incorrect because SMA is not a demyelination disorder that affects nerve roots and muscle groups.
2. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?
- A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
- B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
- C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
- D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.
3. A school nurse is meeting with a high school student who mentions that she is frustrated with her repeated outbreaks of cold sores. The student states that she tried an over-the-counter topical cream but that it failed to produce an appreciable improvement. The nurse should recognize that this student used what medication?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
- C. Famciclovir (Famvir)
- D. Docosanol (Abreva)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Docosanol (Abreva). Docosanol is an over-the-counter topical cream commonly used to treat cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion to host cell membranes, reducing the spread of the virus. Ganciclovir (Choice A) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus infections. Valacyclovir (Choice B) and Famciclovir (Choice C) are prescription antiviral medications used to treat herpes simplex virus infections but are not typically available over-the-counter like Docosanol.
4. What condition is a result of Polycythemia Vera, which involves excess red blood cells?
- A. Tissue ischemia & necrosis
- B. Chronic pancreatitis
- C. Low blood pressure & heart rate
- D. Increased numbers of infections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polycythemia Vera, characterized by excess red blood cells, can cause tissue ischemia and necrosis due to the increased blood viscosity. This condition restricts blood flow, leading to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues and subsequent tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of Polycythemia Vera.
5. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?
- A. Insulin therapy
- B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
- C. Sulfonylureas
- D. Thiazolidinediones
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.
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