Nursing Elites

1. A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:

• A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attacking his motor neurons.
• B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
• C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
• D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons. Choice A is incorrect because SMA is not caused by ingesting bacteria from playing in soil. Choice B is incorrect as SMA is not something that a person grows out of. Choice D is incorrect because SMA is not a demyelination disorder that affects nerve roots and muscle groups.

2. Which of the following eye disorders manifests with red eye, pain, and visual acuity changes?

• A. Bacterial conjunctivitis
• B. Acute closed-angle glaucoma
• C. Chronic open-angle glaucoma
• D. Blepharitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute closed-angle glaucoma presents with symptoms such as a red eye, severe pain, and rapid visual acuity changes due to increased intraocular pressure. This condition is considered an ophthalmologic emergency. Bacterial conjunctivitis typically presents with redness, discharge, and irritation but is not associated with severe pain or visual changes. Chronic open-angle glaucoma is usually asymptomatic until advanced stages and does not typically present with acute pain. Blepharitis involves inflammation of the eyelid margins and is characterized by redness and irritation, but it does not cause severe pain or acute visual changes.

3. A female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and begun multiple-drug therapy. The woman has asked the nurse why it is necessary for her to take several different drugs instead of one single drug. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's question?

• A. “Multiple drugs are used because doctors need to combat the TB bacteria from different angles to effectively treat the infection.”
• B. “The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB.”
• C. “Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 weeks to confirm the most effective treatment.”
• D. “Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment helps prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach is crucial because if the infection is not completely eradicated, the remaining bacteria may become resistant to the single drug used, making future treatments less effective. Choice A is incorrect because the use of multiple drugs is not due to uncertainty about which drug will work, but rather to address the bacteria from different angles. Choice C is incorrect as it misleads the patient about the reason for using multiple drugs. Choice D is also incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple drugs is not to speed up treatment but to ensure effectiveness and prevent resistance.

4. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:

• A. higher amounts of albuminuria.
• B. negligible hematuria or absence of hematuria.
• C. presence of red blood cell casts in the urine.
• D. hypoalbuminemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

5. After sustaining a concussion, a client experiences headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness. What does this indicate?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
• C. Consuming too much food at once
• D. Improved kidney function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms are commonly associated with intracranial pressure elevation, which can be dangerous and requires immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome is characterized by severe pain and swelling in the affected limb, not the symptoms mentioned. Consuming too much food at once may lead to digestive issues but does not correlate with the symptoms described. Improved kidney function would not manifest through the symptoms mentioned after a concussion.

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