ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:
- A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attacking his motor neurons.
- B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
- C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons. Choice A is incorrect because SMA is not caused by ingesting bacteria from playing in soil. Choice B is incorrect as SMA is not something that a person grows out of. Choice D is incorrect because SMA is not a demyelination disorder that affects nerve roots and muscle groups.
2. Which of the following might result from severe diarrhea?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Metabolic acidosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic acidosis. Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis because the loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool results in an overall decrease in the body's bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, usually due to inadequate alveolar ventilation. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, usually caused by conditions like vomiting. Respiratory alkalosis (choice C) is a condition of low blood carbon dioxide levels and high pH, often due to hyperventilation.
3. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:
- A. higher amounts of albuminuria.
- B. negligible hematuria or absence of hematuria.
- C. presence of red blood cell casts in the urine.
- D. hypoalbuminemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.
4. A 65-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit from the operating room after a triple coronary artery bypass graft. He is intubated and on a ventilator. Lactic acid levels were normal postoperatively, but now they are rising. The increased level could be an indication of:
- A. excessive sedation
- B. bowel ischemia
- C. excessive volume infusion in the operating room
- D. mild hypothermia postoperatively
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the rising lactic acid levels in a 65-year-old man after a coronary artery bypass graft could indicate bowel ischemia. Bowel ischemia can lead to anaerobic metabolism, causing an increase in lactic acid levels. Excessive sedation may cause respiratory depression but would not directly lead to rising lactic acid levels. Excessive volume infusion in the operating room might cause fluid overload but would not typically result in rising lactic acid levels. Mild hypothermia postoperatively could lead to shivering and increased oxygen consumption, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of rising lactic acid levels in this context.
5. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:
- A. live and can cause infection.
- B. mutated and infectious.
- C. inactive but still infectious
- D. pathogenic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. Patients who are immunocompromised, like those receiving long-term steroids after an organ transplant, should not receive live vaccines because the live attenuated organisms in these vaccines can cause infections in individuals with weakened immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because attenuated vaccines are live but weakened, not mutated. Choice C is incorrect because while inactive, attenuated vaccines are not infectious. Choice D is incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not pathogenic; they are attenuated (weakened) forms of the pathogen.
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