a 70 year old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot the client also exhibits speech difficulties which condition i
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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

2. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Transfusion reaction. Transfusion reaction is not an autoimmune disease because it occurs when the immune system responds to foreign blood cells, not to the body's own cells. Choices A, B, and C (Multiple sclerosis, Pernicious anemia, Goodpasture syndrome) are autoimmune diseases where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues or organs.

3. What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.

4. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.

5. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.

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