ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following statements characterizes irritable bowel syndrome?
- A. Typically does not cause anemia
- B. Not generally associated with intestinal E. coli
- C. Can be associated with anxiety and/or depression
- D. Not often associated with bloody diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. While IBS can lead to symptoms like diarrhea or constipation, it typically does not cause anemia (choice A), is not generally associated with intestinal E. coli (choice B), and is not often associated with bloody diarrhea (choice D). However, IBS can indeed be associated with anxiety and/or depression (choice C) due to the gut-brain axis, a bidirectional communication system between the gut and the brain. This association is well-documented in IBS patients, highlighting the importance of considering psychological factors in managing the condition.
2. A home care nurse visits a patient who is bed-bound and lives in a 12-story high-rise apartment complex. Her daughter states that she has small red skin lesions over her body and she has been itching. What parasite is most likely responsible for this patient's skin lesions?
- A. Sarcoptes scabiei
- B. Pediculus humanus corporis
- C. Pediculus humanus pubis
- D. Toxoplasma gondii
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Sarcoptes scabiei. Sarcoptes scabiei is a parasitic mite that causes scabies, characterized by small red skin lesions and intense itching. Pediculosis corporis (choice B) refers to body lice, which do not cause the specific symptoms described. Pediculosis pubis (choice C) is caused by pubic lice and presents differently from the symptoms described. Toxoplasma gondii (choice D) is a parasite that causes toxoplasmosis, but it does not typically manifest with small red skin lesions and itching.
3. A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?
- A. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses.
- B. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated.
- C. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily.
- D. More neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.
4. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Skin inspection for developing lesions
- B. Lung function testing
- C. Assessment of serum calcium levels
- D. Assessment of arterial blood gases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.
5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What is a key contraindication that the nurse should review with the patient?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both act as vasodilators, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because having a history of hypertension, using antihypertensive medications, or having a history of peptic ulcer disease are not key contraindications for sildenafil use.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access