ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. What is reperfusion injury?
- A. Healing bone tissue after fracture
- B. Skin wound tunneling and shear
- C. Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
- D. Injury after blood transfusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reperfusion injury refers to the secondary injury that occurs after blood flow is reestablished following ischemia. This process leads to tissue damage due to the sudden reintroduction of oxygen and nutrients, causing oxidative stress, inflammation, and cell death. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the normal healing process of bone tissue after a fracture. Choice B is incorrect as it describes specific mechanisms related to skin wounds, not reperfusion injury. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a different concept, which is adverse reactions or complications that can occur after a blood transfusion, not reperfusion injury.
2. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is important for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not need to be taken with food. Choice B is irrelevant as sun exposure is not a concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.
3. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Hematocrit of 39%
- C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
- D. AST level of 10 Unit/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect in a patient with hyperaldosteronism?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would suspect hyperkalemia. Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased potassium excretion, resulting in low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, choices A (Hyponatremia), B (Hypernatremia), and D (Hypercalcemia) are incorrect. Hyponatremia refers to low sodium levels, Hypernatremia refers to high sodium levels, and Hypercalcemia refers to high calcium levels, none of which are typically associated with hyperaldosteronism.
5. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?
- A. Increased urine retention
- B. Insufficient circulating blood volume
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.
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