Nursing Elites

1. What is reperfusion injury?

• A. Healing bone tissue after fracture
• B. Skin wound tunneling and shear
• C. Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
• D. Injury after blood transfusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reperfusion injury refers to the secondary injury that occurs after blood flow is reestablished following ischemia. This process leads to tissue damage due to the sudden reintroduction of oxygen and nutrients, causing oxidative stress, inflammation, and cell death. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the normal healing process of bone tissue after a fracture. Choice B is incorrect as it describes specific mechanisms related to skin wounds, not reperfusion injury. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a different concept, which is adverse reactions or complications that can occur after a blood transfusion, not reperfusion injury.

2. A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strange and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:

• A. Alzheimer's disease.
• B. Vascular dementia.
• C. Dementia with Lewy bodies.
• D. Frontotemporal dementia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as visual hallucinations, fluctuations in cognition, and parkinsonism (bradykinesia and limb rigidity), are classic features of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). DLB is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are abnormal protein deposits. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a predominant symptom, which is not a major concern in this case. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of cerebrovascular disease and is not supported by the symptoms described. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) usually presents with changes in behavior and personality, rather than the symptoms described in the scenario.

3. When a client has their 'fight or flight' system activated, which below is a manifestation of that?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Decreased respiration rate
• D. Increased glucose levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased glucose levels.' When the 'fight or flight' system is activated, the body releases glucose to provide energy for the impending response. This increase in glucose levels helps fuel the body's reaction to the perceived threat or stressor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the 'fight or flight' response, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate typically increase to prepare the body to confront or flee from the perceived danger.

4. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy?

• A. Testosterone therapy increases the risk of cardiovascular events, so regular monitoring is essential.
• B. Testosterone therapy can cause liver dysfunction, so liver function tests should be monitored regularly.
• C. Testosterone therapy can lead to prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Testosterone therapy can lead to bone fractures, so bone density should be monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Testosterone therapy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient for cardiovascular complications. While monitoring liver function tests (choice B) and bone density (choice D) may be important in some cases, the primary concern during testosterone therapy is the risk of cardiovascular events. Prostate cancer screenings (choice C) are not directly related to testosterone therapy's adverse effects.

5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.

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