a 60 year old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism which of the following adverse effects should the nurse mon
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.

2. What is the primary cause of angina?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstruction of the coronary arteries. Angina is primarily caused by a reduced blood flow to the heart due to blockages or narrowing in the coronary arteries. Choice A is incorrect because while increased oxygen demand can contribute to angina symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as angina is not caused by a lack of oxygen in the lungs. Choice D is also incorrect as angina is not related to decreased blood supply to the liver.

3. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.

4. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.

5. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

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