Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect in a patient with hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would suspect hyperkalemia. Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased potassium excretion, resulting in low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, choices A (Hyponatremia), B (Hypernatremia), and D (Hypercalcemia) are incorrect. Hyponatremia refers to low sodium levels, Hypernatremia refers to high sodium levels, and Hypercalcemia refers to high calcium levels, none of which are typically associated with hyperaldosteronism.

3. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

4. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:

• A. Inflammation
• B. Maturation
• C. Remodeling
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.

5. What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on histologic exam?

• A. Reed-Sternberg cells
• B. Red-stained cells
• C. Human Papillomavirus
• D. B-cells and T-cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reed-Sternberg cells. Reed-Sternberg cells are large, abnormal B-cells that are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are identified on histologic examination of lymph node biopsies from patients with Hodgkin disease. Choice B, 'Red-stained cells,' is vague and does not describe a specific feature of Hodgkin disease. Choice C, 'Human Papillomavirus,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is not caused by HPV. Choice D, 'B-cells and T-cells,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B-cells.

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