Nursing Elites

1. The registered nurse is teaching a class on inflammation and explains that which cell is the predominant phagocyte arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites?

• A. Macrophages
• B. Mast cells
• C. Monocytes
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neutrophils are the correct answer as they are the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites. Neutrophils are part of the body's innate immune system and are among the first responders to sites of inflammation or infection. They play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens. Macrophages, although important phagocytes, usually arrive later at the site. Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and not primarily phagocytes. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are not the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory sites.

2. A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased prostate size
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased risk of kidney stones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is expected to decrease urinary frequency and urgency in patients with BPH by reducing prostate size. It works by inhibiting the enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which helps shrink the prostate gland. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Finasteride does not increase prostate size, blood pressure, or the risk of kidney stones.

3. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:

• A. A water-soluble compound that is easily absorbed by the gastric lining of the stomach.
• B. Very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier.
• C. Able to reverse the transport of some substances to remove them from the brain.
• D. Very likely to cause sedation and therefore the client just needs to sleep it off.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.

4. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?

• A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
• B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
• C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
• D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.

5. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Profound diaphoresis
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Flu-like symptoms
• D. Cyanosis and pallor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.

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