ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
- B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
- C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
- D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.
2. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?
- A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
- B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
- C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
- D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.
4. A male patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What specific instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the safe use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to avoid taking nitrates while on sildenafil (Viagra). Combining sildenafil with nitrates can result in severe hypotension due to additive vasodilatory effects. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take sildenafil at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as taking sildenafil with milk has not been shown to enhance its absorption.
5. A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:
- A. Hypertrophic scarring
- B. Dehiscence
- C. Contracture
- D. A keloid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.
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