ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?
- A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
- B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
- C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
- D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.
2. Following the administration of her annual influenza vaccination, a health care worker remains at the clinic for observation due to pain at the injection site. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. ASA
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Meperidine (Demerol)
- D. Heat application
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for pain at the injection site after an influenza vaccination is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is a suitable choice for managing mild to moderate pain and fever commonly associated with vaccinations. Choice A, ASA (aspirin), is not recommended due to the risk of Reye's syndrome in children and teenagers following viral illnesses. Choice C, Meperidine (Demerol), is a potent opioid analgesic and is not typically indicated for mild pain relief. Choice D, heat application, is not the standard recommendation for pain at an injection site and may not provide adequate relief.
3. A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?
- A. Increased libido
- B. Increased muscle mass
- C. Improved secondary sexual characteristics
- D. Decreased sperm count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.
4. A patient is starting on oral contraceptives. What should the nurse emphasize about the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures effectiveness.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels and ensures their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary emphasis of consistent timing is on hormone levels and effectiveness, not on reducing breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because while consistent absorption is a factor, the main focus is on maintaining stable hormone levels. Choice D is incorrect as missing doses can significantly impact contraceptive efficacy.
5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
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