Nursing Elites

1. What is the treatment for patients with hemophilia A?

• A. Chemotherapy
• B. Factor VIII replacement
• C. Heparin administration
• D. Bone marrow transplant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct treatment for patients with hemophilia A is Factor VIII replacement. Hemophilia A is a genetic disorder where there is a deficiency in clotting factor VIII. Therefore, replacing this factor is crucial in managing and preventing bleeding episodes. Choice A, chemotherapy, is not the correct treatment for hemophilia A. Choice C, heparin administration, is not recommended as it can further increase the risk of bleeding in patients with hemophilia. Choice D, bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hemophilia A.

2. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

3. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

4. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

• A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
• B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
• C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
• D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

5. A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?

• A. Observe the patient taking the medications.
• B. Administer the medications parenterally.
• C. Instruct the family on the medication regimen.
• D. Count the number of tablets in the bottle daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.

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