ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s disease?
- A. Mobility and functioning
- B. The liver and kidneys
- C. Too much dopamine in the brain
- D. Skeletal muscle flaccidity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Too much dopamine in the brain. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, not an excess. This deficiency leads to the motor symptoms associated with the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Mobility and functioning are affected in Parkinson's disease due to the lack of dopamine, not an excess. The liver and kidneys are not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Skeletal muscle flaccidity is not typically a primary symptom of Parkinson's disease, which is more characterized by rigidity and tremors.
2. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.
3. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:
- A. adrenal crisis
- B. hypercortisolism
- C. ACTH stimulation
- D. thyroid crisis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.
4. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?
- A. Reduction in red blood cell count
- B. Decreased number of infections
- C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
- D. Increase in white blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.
5. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
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