Nursing Elites

1. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

4. A female patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. This medication may cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting.
• B. This medication may cause weight gain.
• C. This medication may increase your risk of developing diabetes.
• D. This medication may increase your risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) can cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting, which is a common side effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased risk of diabetes, and increased risk of breast cancer are not commonly associated side effects of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the patient about the potential for breakthrough bleeding or spotting.

5. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?

• A. Decreases neutropenia related to chemotherapy
• B. Decreases white blood cells related to infection
• C. Decreases growth of blood vessels due to ischemia
• D. Decreases platelet count related to bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.

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