ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy?
- A. Monitor liver function tests regularly.
- B. Monitor renal function tests regularly.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Monitor complete blood count (CBC) regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor liver function tests regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy. Androgen therapy can impact liver function, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests to assess any potential adverse effects on the liver. Renal function tests (choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy and do not need specific monitoring for this treatment. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are more relevant in conditions like diabetes or with medications affecting blood sugar, not typically in androgen therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (choice D) is not directly impacted by androgen therapy and is not a priority for monitoring in this context.
2. When a healthcare professional is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the healthcare professional calls these erythrocytes:
- A. Hyperchromic
- B. Hypochromic
- C. Macrocytic
- D. Microcytic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erythrocytes with an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called hypochromic. Hyperchromic refers to erythrocytes with an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin. Macrocytic indicates larger than normal red blood cells, while microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct term is hypochromic.
3. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
4. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer pain relief medication.
- B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
- C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.
5. A patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, recent use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for using sildenafil.
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