ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy?
- A. Monitor liver function tests regularly.
- B. Monitor renal function tests regularly.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Monitor complete blood count (CBC) regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor liver function tests regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy. Androgen therapy can impact liver function, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests to assess any potential adverse effects on the liver. Renal function tests (choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy and do not need specific monitoring for this treatment. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are more relevant in conditions like diabetes or with medications affecting blood sugar, not typically in androgen therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (choice D) is not directly impacted by androgen therapy and is not a priority for monitoring in this context.
2. What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
- B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
- C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
- D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This inflammation leads to the deposition of immune complexes, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation, which collectively contribute to a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice A is incorrect as decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries would not directly result in decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice C is incorrect as necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure would affect kidney function differently. Choice D is incorrect as scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule due to toxin-induced collagen synthesis is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis.
3. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize about the risks associated with this therapy?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. HRT may improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can decrease the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur.
4. A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?
- A. The mucous membrane is affected.
- B. The respiratory tract is affected.
- C. The skin is affected.
- D. The gastrointestinal tract is affected.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.
5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access