Nursing Elites

1. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
• B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
• C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
• D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.

2. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism?

• A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• B. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back for better results.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This method helps avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not recommended as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp and back is not a standard or effective route of administration for testosterone gel. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it ensures proper application and safety.

3. Which of the following clinical findings in a 51-year-old woman is consistent with Graves disease?

• A. Thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema.
• B. Thin hair, exophthalmos, weight gain, and constipation.
• C. Thick hair, bradycardia, weight loss, and dry skin.
• D. Thick hair, bradycardia, weight gain, and constipation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos (bulging eyes), hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic manifestations of Graves disease, an autoimmune condition that results in hyperthyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain and constipation are more indicative of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism seen in Graves disease. Choice C is incorrect as the symptoms described are more characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice D is also incorrect as the symptoms listed are not consistent with Graves disease but rather suggest hypothyroidism.

4. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse emphasize about the potential interactions with other medications?

• A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics.
• B. Oral contraceptives are less effective when taken with food.
• C. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• D. Oral contraceptives have no interactions with other medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics, so patients should be informed about the potential need for additional contraception. Choice B is incorrect because taking oral contraceptives with food does not affect their effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives can interact with other medications, especially certain antibiotics, affecting their efficacy.

5. In clients with a cognitive impairment disorder, the phenomenon of increased confusion in the early evening hours is called:

• A. Aphasia.
• B. Agnosia.
• C. Sundowning.
• D. Confabulation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sundowning. Sundowning is a phenomenon where individuals with cognitive impairment experience increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or early evening. This often occurs in conditions like dementia. Choice A, Aphasia, refers to a language disorder affecting a person's ability to communicate. Choice B, Agnosia, is the inability to recognize objects. Choice D, Confabulation, is the production of false memories without the intention to deceive, often seen in conditions like Korsakoff's syndrome.

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