Nursing Elites

1. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
• B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
• C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
• D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.

2. A hospital patient's complex medical history includes a recent diagnosis of kidney cancer. Which of the following medications is used to treat metastatic kidney cancer?

• A. Filgrastim (Neupogen)
• B. Aldesleukin (Proleukin)
• C. Interferon alfa-2b (Intron A)
• D. Darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Aldesleukin (Proleukin). Aldesleukin is a medication used in the treatment of metastatic kidney cancer. It is a recombinant interleukin-2 that works by stimulating the immune system to attack cancer cells. Choice A, Filgrastim, is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells. Choice C, Interferon alfa-2b, is used in the treatment of certain cancers but not specifically metastatic kidney cancer. Choice D, Darbepoetin alfa, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production and is not indicated for metastatic kidney cancer.

3. Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process?

• A. Passive natural immunity
• B. Active natural immunity
• C. Passive artificial immunity
• D. Active artificial immunity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active artificial immunity. A tetanus booster shot confers protection through active artificial immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies in response to an antigen, providing long-lasting protection. In this case, the tetanus booster shot triggers the student's immune system to produce specific antibodies against tetanus toxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because passive immunity does not involve the individual's immune system producing antibodies; instead, it involves the direct transfer of antibodies from another source (natural or artificial) for immediate, but temporary, protection.

4. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

• A. Does your son have a family history of migraines?
• B. When your son has a headache, does he ever have nausea and vomiting as well?
• C. Does your son have any food allergies that have been identified?
• D. Is your son generally pain-free during the intervals between headaches?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In assessing a child for migraines, asking about food allergies is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his headaches. Food allergies are unrelated to the typical symptoms and triggers of migraines, such as family history, associated symptoms like nausea and vomiting, and pain-free intervals between headaches. Therefore, in this scenario, focusing on food allergies is less relevant for identifying migraines as the cause of the boy's headaches.

5. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?

• A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
• B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
• C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.

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