ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A patient is starting on medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Patients starting on medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis should be instructed to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated to the medication and not a specific concern with its use. Choice D is incorrect as patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider, even if side effects occur.
2. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction?
- A. Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm
- B. Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration
- C. Rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness
- D. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Persistent chest pain that may radiate to the arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This pain is typically described as crushing, pressure-like, or squeezing. Choice B is incorrect because brief sternal chest pain on inspiration is not characteristic of myocardial infarction. Choice C is incorrect because rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder is not a common presentation of myocardial infarction.
3. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Migraine headache
- B. Cluster headache
- C. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
- D. Sinus headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.
4. In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:
- A. HLA type
- B. Rh antigen
- C. Immunoglobulins
- D. Platelet compatibility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rh antigen. In addition to ABO antigens, Rh antigen must also be matched for a blood transfusion. Rh antigen compatibility is crucial to prevent adverse reactions. Choice A, HLA type, is not directly related to blood transfusions but plays a role in organ transplantation. Choice C, Immunoglobulins, are not typically matched for blood transfusions. Choice D, Platelet compatibility, while important in specific cases, is not a standard requirement for all blood transfusions.
5. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?
- A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
- B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
- C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.
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