Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Neutrophils
• C. Leukotrienes
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to a bacterial infection. They are phagocytes that engulf and destroy bacteria, playing a crucial role in the early stages of the immune response. Eosinophils are primarily involved in combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions, not bacterial infections. Leukotrienes are signaling molecules that contribute to inflammation and immune responses, but they are not cells. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that differentiates into macrophages and dendritic cells, playing a role in immune response but not as immediate as neutrophils.

2. A patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, recent use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for using sildenafil.

3. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

• A. Hypochromic and microcytic.
• B. Hypochromic and macrocytic.
• C. Normochromic and microcytic.
• D. Normochromic and normocytic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is typically characterized by normochromic (normal hemoglobin content) and normocytic (normal cell size) red blood cells. Choice A, hypochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because hypochromic refers to reduced hemoglobin content and microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells, which are not typically seen in anemia of chronic inflammation. Choice B, hypochromic and macrocytic, is also incorrect as macrocytic refers to larger than normal red blood cells. Choice C, normochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because microcytic red blood cells are smaller than normal. Therefore, the correct classification for anemia of chronic inflammation is normochromic and normocytic.

4. What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?

• A. The cervical mucus is altered to prevent sperm penetration.
• B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
• C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
• D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.

5. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?

• A. Avanafil (Stendra)
• B. Tadalafil (Cialis)
• C. Vardenafil (Levitra)
• D. Alprostadil (Caverject)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.

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