what are the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. What are the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spinal cord injuries commonly occur due to hyperextension, hyperflexion, and compression. Hyperextension and hyperflexion refer to the excessive bending or stretching of the spinal cord, while compression is the exertion of pressure on the spinal cord. These mechanisms can lead to damage such as contusions, lacerations, and compression of the spinal cord. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries.

2. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.

4. Which of the following describes passive immunity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.

5. A client arrives with symptoms of stroke. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is a critical first step in evaluating a potential stroke. Changes in the level of consciousness can indicate the severity and location of brain damage, helping to guide immediate interventions. Assessing blood pressure, pupil reaction, and heart rate are also important aspects of the assessment in a suspected stroke patient. However, the priority is to quickly determine the client's level of consciousness to assess their neurological status.

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