a 50 year old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur
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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.

2. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.

3. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

5. A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections. A possible cause of this condition is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immune insufficiency is a possible cause of recurring respiratory infections in a 5-month-old child. In this scenario, the child's immune system may not be functioning optimally, leading to a susceptibility to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypergammaglobulinemia refers to high levels of gamma globulins in the blood and is not typically associated with recurring respiratory infections in this context. Increased maternal IgG would provide passive immunity to the child, offering some protection against infections. Decreased maternal antibody breakdown leading to hyposensitivity is not a common cause of recurring respiratory infections in a 5-month-old child.

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