Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?

• A. Bronze-colored skin
• B. Decreased iron
• C. Normochromic erythrocytes
• D. Aplastic bone marrow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.

2. A patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and their combined use can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, recent use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for using sildenafil.

3. Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:

• A. glycoprotein
• B. dystrophin
• C. troponin
• D. actinomyosin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

4. The registered nurse is teaching a class on inflammation and explains that which cell is the predominant phagocyte arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites?

• A. Macrophages
• B. Mast cells
• C. Monocytes
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neutrophils are the correct answer as they are the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory and infection sites. Neutrophils are part of the body's innate immune system and are among the first responders to sites of inflammation or infection. They play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens. Macrophages, although important phagocytes, usually arrive later at the site. Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions and not primarily phagocytes. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are not the predominant phagocytes arriving early at inflammatory sites.

5. Multiple sclerosis manifests as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body because:

• A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
• B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
• C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
• D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This attack leads to patchy damage on the myelin sheath, resulting in asymmetrical neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, it is the autoreactive lymphocytes that target and damage the myelin sheath, not acetylcholine receptors, T lymphocytes, or cortical motor cells.

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