Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?

• A. Bronze-colored skin
• B. Decreased iron
• C. Normochromic erythrocytes
• D. Aplastic bone marrow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Bronze-colored skin.' Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by excess iron deposition, leading to bronze-colored skin. This occurs due to the abnormal accumulation of iron in tissues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sideroblastic anemia does not typically present with decreased iron levels, normochromic erythrocytes, or aplastic bone marrow.

2. A patient with hypogonadism is being treated with testosterone gel. What application instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Testosterone gel should be applied to the chest or upper arms and allowed to dry completely before dressing to avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, genitals, scalp, or back is not recommended as these areas may lead to unintentional transfer to others, inappropriate absorption, or potential side effects. Choice A is incorrect as applying the gel to the face and neck can lead to unwanted transfer. Choice C is incorrect as applying the gel to the genitals is not the recommended site for application. Choice D is incorrect as the scalp and back are not appropriate sites for applying testosterone gel.

3. What is reperfusion injury?

• A. Healing bone tissue after fracture
• B. Skin wound tunneling and shear
• C. Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
• D. Injury after blood transfusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reperfusion injury refers to the secondary injury that occurs after blood flow is reestablished following ischemia. This process leads to tissue damage due to the sudden reintroduction of oxygen and nutrients, causing oxidative stress, inflammation, and cell death. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the normal healing process of bone tissue after a fracture. Choice B is incorrect as it describes specific mechanisms related to skin wounds, not reperfusion injury. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a different concept, which is adverse reactions or complications that can occur after a blood transfusion, not reperfusion injury.

4. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse should educate the patient about what potential side effect of this medication?

• A. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• B. Increased risk of hot flashes
• C. Increased risk of cataracts
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots such as swelling, redness, warmth, or pain in the affected limb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with an increased risk of hot flashes, cataracts, or bone fractures.

5. Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?

• A. The bladder and urethra
• B. The brain and skin
• C. The heart and kidneys
• D. The stomach and intestines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Poorly managed hypertension primarily affects the heart and kidneys. The heart is at risk of conditions like heart failure due to the increased workload from elevated blood pressure. The kidneys can suffer damage from longstanding hypertension, leading to kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the bladder, urethra, brain, skin, stomach, and intestines are not the primary organs affected by poorly managed hypertension.

Similar Questions