Nursing Elites

1. When communicating with a client who has cognitive impairment, which of the following will Nurse Dory use?

• A. Complete explanations with multiple details
• B. Pictures or gestures instead of words
• C. Stimulating words and phrases to capture the client’s attention
• D. Short words and simple sentences

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nurse Dory will use short words and simple sentences when communicating with a client who has cognitive impairment. This approach is effective because it helps improve understanding and comprehension for individuals with cognitive challenges. Choice A is incorrect because complete explanations with multiple details may overwhelm or confuse clients with cognitive impairment. Choice B is not the most effective option as using pictures or gestures instead of words may not always be practical or necessary. Choice C is also not ideal as stimulating words and phrases may cause distraction rather than enhance communication for clients with cognitive impairment.

2. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?

• A. High sugar, low-fat diet
• B. Increased physical activity
• C. Tobacco use
• D. Low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.

3. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

• A. White blood cell count with differential
• B. RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
• C. INR and aPTT
• D. d-dimer and C-reactive protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

4. After a patient is exposed to a specific antigen, B cells will differentiate into:

• A. B cytotoxic cells
• B. Plasma cells
• C. Bursal cells
• D. Clonal equivalents

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After exposure to a specific antigen, B cells undergo differentiation into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies in response to the antigen. Choice A ('B cytotoxic cells') is incorrect because B cells do not differentiate into cytotoxic cells; cytotoxic cells are typically associated with T cells. Choice C ('Bursal cells') is incorrect as bursal cells are specific to birds and not relevant to human immune responses. Choice D ('Clonal equivalents') is incorrect as it does not describe the differentiation process of B cells exposed to antigens.

5. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

• A. 48 hours.
• B. a week to 10 days.
• C. 2 to 3 weeks.
• D. 4 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

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