Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

• A. Emotional stress
• B. Dietary indiscretion
• C. Physical overexertion
• D. Adequate rest and relaxation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

2. A patient taking oral contraceptives reports breakthrough bleeding. What should the nurse assess in this patient?

• A. Adherence to the medication schedule
• B. The possibility of pregnancy
• C. The need for an increased dosage
• D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding can be a sign of missed doses or inconsistent timing, which can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Assessing the patient's adherence helps in ensuring proper use of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because breakthrough bleeding is more likely related to adherence issues rather than pregnancy, the need for increased dosage, or the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive.

3. When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidneys secrete a hormone to increase blood pressure and peripheral resistance. What is this hormone called?

• A. Renin
• B. Antidiuretic hormone
• C. Atrial natriuretic
• D. Insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Renin is the correct answer. When arterial blood pressure decreases, the kidneys release renin, which triggers a series of reactions ultimately leading to an increase in blood pressure and peripheral resistance. Antidiuretic hormone (choice B) is involved in water retention, atrial natriuretic hormone (choice C) promotes sodium excretion and lowers blood pressure, and insulin (choice D) regulates glucose metabolism, not blood pressure.

4. A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child's parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?

• A. Desensitized
• B. Atopic
• C. Hyperactive
• D. Autoimmune

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the correct term to classify the child is 'Atopic.' Atopic individuals have a genetic predisposition to developing allergic conditions, as seen in this patient with a family history of allergies. 'Desensitized' refers to reduced sensitivity to an allergen, which is not the case here. 'Hyperactive' relates to an exaggerated response, and 'Autoimmune' involves the immune system attacking its own cells, neither of which accurately describes the child's classification based on the provided history.

5. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

Similar Questions