ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Numbness
- C. Diminished vision
- D. Light-colored stools
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.
2. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?
- A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
- B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
- C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
- D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.
4. When assessing a 7-year-old child's pain after an emergency appendectomy, what is the most appropriate tool for the nurse to use?
- A. Use a visual analog scale (VAS) to assess the pain.
- B. Ask the child to rate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10.
- C. Use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to assess the pain.
- D. Ask the parents to describe the child's pain behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to assess the child's pain. This scale is specifically designed for children and uses facial expressions of varying intensities to help them communicate their pain levels effectively. Choices A and B may not be as suitable for a young child who may have difficulty understanding or using a numerical scale. Choice D involving parents may not provide an accurate reflection of the child's pain experience, as it is essential to assess the child's self-reporting.
5. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
- B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
- C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.
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