Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

2. A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

• A. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory compromise
• C. Monitoring for changes in consciousness
• D. Monitoring blood pressure closely

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

• A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
• B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
• C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
• D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

4. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:

• A. live and can cause infection.
• B. mutated and infectious.
• C. inactive but still infectious.
• D. pathogenic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. In patients like the one described with a history of heart transplant and receiving long-term steroids, who are immunocompromised, live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated. Live vaccines contain weakened (attenuated) forms of the virus or bacteria, which can replicate and cause mild infections in healthy individuals but can lead to serious infections in immunocompromised individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not mutated, not inactive, and not pathogenic in healthy individuals, respectively.

5. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?

• A. The client is a smoker.
• B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
• C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
• D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.

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