ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
2. Cellular swelling is:
- A. Irreversible
- B. Evident early in all types of cellular injury
- C. Manifested by decreased intracellular sodium
- D. None of the above is correct
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cellular swelling is indeed evident early in all types of cellular injury. This occurs due to the influx of water into the cell, leading to swelling. Choice A is incorrect because cellular swelling is reversible if the injury is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because cellular swelling is not manifested by decreased intracellular sodium; in fact, it is associated with increased intracellular sodium due to water influx. Choice D is incorrect as option B is the correct statement.
3. What therapeutic effect is expected from tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
- B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
- C. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
- D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.' Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker that specifically targets alpha-1 receptors in the prostate and bladder neck, causing relaxation of smooth muscles. This relaxation results in improved urinary flow and reduced symptoms of BPH. Choice B is incorrect because while tamsulosin does improve urinary flow, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because tamsulosin does not reduce prostate size. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin does not have a primary effect on erectile function.
4. When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will:
- A. Increase in size
- B. Decrease in length
- C. Increase in excitability
- D. Increase in number
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in size. Cardiac hypertrophy occurs when myocardial cells increase in size to compensate for an increased workload. This adaptation allows the heart to pump more effectively. Choice B, Decrease in length, is incorrect as cardiac cells do not decrease in length in response to increased workload. Choice C, Increase in excitability, is incorrect as increased workload does not lead to an increase in excitability of cardiac cells. Choice D, Increase in number, is incorrect as cardiac cells do not increase in number but rather increase in size to handle the increased workload.
5. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?
- A. The serum level of carbamazepine will be increased.
- B. The patient's carbamazepine should be discontinued.
- C. The patient's antiseizure medication should be changed.
- D. The patient will require a higher dosage of itraconazole (Sporanox).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.
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