ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.
2. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?
- A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
- C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
- D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.
3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of bone fractures
- C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
- D. Increased risk of mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.
4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What important instruction should the nurse provide about the use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is crucial for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate in treating endometriosis. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific instruction related to food intake. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is not a specific consideration for this medication.
5. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.
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