in which patient is alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

2. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

3. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. What is a key point the nurse should include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, typically 30 minutes to an hour before breakfast, to ensure proper absorption. Taking it with food, calcium supplements, or grapefruit juice can interfere with its absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with calcium supplements can reduce its effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect because grapefruit juice can also interfere with levothyroxine absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with food can decrease its absorption.

4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

5. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

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