Nursing Elites

1. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

• A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
• B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
• C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
• D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

2. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.

3. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.

4. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:

• A. Dysplasia
• B. Metaplasia
• C. Hyperplasia
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.

5. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin disorders is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Melanoma
• C. Atopic dermatitis
• D. Urticaria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation. Choice B, Melanoma, is a type of skin cancer involving melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Choice C, Atopic dermatitis, is a different inflammatory skin condition associated with pruritus and eczematous lesions, not primarily characterized by angiogenesis. Choice D, Urticaria, is a skin condition characterized by hives and wheals due to histamine release, not typically involving the features mentioned in the question.

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