Nursing Elites

1. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

• A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
• B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
• C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
• D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

2. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.

• A. Allergies and onychomycosis
• B. Type II diabetes and smallpox
• C. Chronic renal failure and macular degeneration
• D. Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis. Allergies are caused by an excessive immune response to harmless substances, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's tissues, leading to inflammation and joint damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nails, Type II diabetes is a metabolic disorder not primarily related to immune response, smallpox is a viral infection, chronic renal failure is a kidney condition, and macular degeneration is an eye disorder, none of which are directly linked to excessive immune response.

3. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased urine flow
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.

4. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

5. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?

• A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
• B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
• C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
• D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.

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