in which patient is alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.

3. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse be most concerned about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Cardiovascular events such as stroke and myocardial infarction are the most concerning adverse effects of testosterone therapy, especially in older patients. Choice A, increased risk of breast cancer, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy in males. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is a potential adverse effect but is not the most concerning. Choice D, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a consideration in patients with a history of prostate cancer or those with prostate carcinoma, not typically in patients receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism.

4. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

5. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the contraceptive's efficacy, potentially leading to decreased effectiveness. Therefore, patients should be advised to use additional contraception methods if they are also taking antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is incorrect since taking oral contraceptives with food does not necessarily impact their effectiveness.

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