a 21 year old male is brought to the ed following a night of partying in his fraternity his friends found him asleep and couldnt get him to respond th
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ATI RN

Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.

2. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.

3. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

4. When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.

5. A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is being prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse include in the patient education regarding the risks associated with HRT?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like venous thromboembolism, as mentioned in choice C. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT has been associated with a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer.

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