ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?
- A. Avanafil (Stendra)
- B. Tadalafil (Cialis)
- C. Vardenafil (Levitra)
- D. Alprostadil (Caverject)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.
2. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.
3. Which physiologic response is most likely to accompany activation of the parasympathetic nervous system?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased gastric motility
- C. Pupil dilation
- D. Sweating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased gastric motility. The parasympathetic nervous system is known to promote rest and digest functions, which includes increasing gastric motility to aid in digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are more characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate (Choice A), pupil dilation (Choice C), and sweating (Choice D) among other responses.
4. Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining?
- A. Incontinence
- B. Pyelonephritis
- C. Urinary calculi
- D. Cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cystitis. Cystitis specifically refers to the inflammation of the bladder lining. Choice A, Incontinence, refers to the loss of bladder control and is not related to inflammation. Choice B, Pyelonephritis, is the inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis, not the bladder lining. Choice C, Urinary calculi, refers to the formation of stones in the urinary tract and is not related to bladder inflammation.
5. Cushing syndrome is characterized by which disorder?
- A. Hypocortisolism
- B. Exophthalmos
- C. Hypercortisolism
- D. Hyperpigmentation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cushing syndrome is characterized by hypercortisolism, which is an excessive amount of cortisol in the body. Choice A, 'Hypocortisolism,' is incorrect as Cushing syndrome is associated with elevated cortisol levels. Choice B, 'Exophthalmos,' refers to bulging eyes and is not a characteristic feature of Cushing syndrome. Hyperpigmentation, as mentioned in choice D, can be present in Cushing syndrome due to increased ACTH levels stimulating melanocytes, but it is not the defining characteristic of the syndrome.
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