Nursing Elites

1. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

• A. CD4 helper T cells
• B. CD8 helper T cells
• C. CDC cells
• D. CDC10 cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.

2. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

• A. Destruction of proteoglycans
• B. Underexcretion of uric acid
• C. Overexcretion of uric acid
• D. Increased absorption of uric acid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. Gouty arthritis is primarily caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation in joints and subsequent crystallization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of gout. Destruction of proteoglycans, overexcretion of uric acid, and increased absorption of uric acid are not primary causes of gouty arthritis.

3. What is a common factor related to all forms of heart failure?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Reduced cardiac output
• D. Jugular vein distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share this common factor, which occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While peripheral edema and pulmonary edema can be symptoms of heart failure, they are not universal to all forms. Jugular vein distention is a sign of right heart failure, not a common factor across all types of heart failure.

4. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

5. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

• A. White blood cell count with differential
• B. RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
• C. INR and aPTT
• D. d-dimer and C-reactive protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

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