ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. Which of the following describes passive immunity?
- A. Vaccination against the disease
- B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
- C. Cuts or wounds that are infected and heal
- D. Having the disease in question
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.
2. A male patient with erectile dysfunction has asked for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Before giving this medication, the nurse should assess for which of the following conditions?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Recent history of a stroke
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil should not be used by patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure. Assessing for the use of nitrates is crucial to avoid this potentially dangerous interaction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically contraindications for the use of sildenafil. While a history of hypertension should be considered, it is not as critical as the use of nitrates when prescribing sildenafil.
3. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.
4. When a client has their 'fight or flight' system activated, which below is a manifestation of that?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Decreased respiration rate
- D. Increased glucose levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased glucose levels.' When the 'fight or flight' system is activated, the body releases glucose to provide energy for the impending response. This increase in glucose levels helps fuel the body's reaction to the perceived threat or stressor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the 'fight or flight' response, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate typically increase to prepare the body to confront or flee from the perceived danger.
5. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by the patient's statement regarding taking extra griseofulvin when she thinks her infection is getting worse?
- A. Deficient knowledge related to correct use of griseofulvin
- B. Effective therapeutic regimen management related to symptom identification
- C. Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin
- D. Ineffective coping related to self-medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Disturbed thought processes related to appropriate use of griseofulvin.' The patient's statement shows a misunderstanding of the correct use of griseofulvin by taking extra medication when she believes her infection is worsening. This behavior indicates a disturbance in her thought process regarding the appropriate use of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not lack of knowledge but rather a misunderstanding leading to inappropriate actions. Choice B is incorrect as the patient's actions do not demonstrate effective management of her therapeutic regimen. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is not engaged in self-medication but rather misinterpreting signals and self-adjusting the prescribed medication.
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