what is the pathophysiology of type i diabetes
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What causes type I diabetes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

3. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

4. A 44-year-old man presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. He states that he has experienced difficulty climbing stairs and even holding his arms up to comb his hair. Which test is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electromyography (EMG). EMG is commonly used to diagnose conditions involving muscle weakness and fatigue, such as myasthenia gravis. Nerve conduction studies primarily assess nerve function rather than muscle involvement. While a muscle biopsy can provide valuable information, EMG is more specific for evaluating muscle function in this context. A blood test for autoantibodies may be helpful in certain autoimmune conditions but is not the primary test for confirming the diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue.

5. Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Poorly managed hypertension primarily affects the heart and kidneys. The heart is at risk of conditions like heart failure due to the increased workload from elevated blood pressure. The kidneys can suffer damage from longstanding hypertension, leading to kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the bladder, urethra, brain, skin, stomach, and intestines are not the primary organs affected by poorly managed hypertension.

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