ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What causes type I diabetes?
- A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
- B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
- C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
- D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.
2. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
- B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
- C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
- D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.
3. A patient with a diagnosis of renal failure is being treated with epoetin alfa (Epogen). Frequent assessment of which of the following laboratory values should be prioritized before and during treatment?
- A. AST
- B. C-reactive protein
- C. CBC
- D. ALT
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is AST. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure. During treatment with epoetin alfa, it is crucial to monitor AST levels as this medication can potentially lead to liver toxicity. Assessing AST levels before and throughout treatment helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. C-reactive protein is not specifically related to the use of epoetin alfa in renal failure. While CBC (Complete Blood Count) monitoring is essential during treatment with epoetin alfa to evaluate the response to therapy, prioritizing AST assessment is more critical due to the potential for liver toxicity. ALT monitoring is also important but AST is prioritized in this scenario.
4. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Neutrophils
- C. Leukotrienes
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to a bacterial infection. They are phagocytes that engulf and destroy bacteria, playing a crucial role in the early stages of the immune response. Eosinophils are primarily involved in combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions, not bacterial infections. Leukotrienes are signaling molecules that contribute to inflammation and immune responses, but they are not cells. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that differentiates into macrophages and dendritic cells, playing a role in immune response but not as immediate as neutrophils.
5. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:
- A. Failure of B cells to mature
- B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
- C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
- D. Selective IgG deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access