Nursing Elites

1. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

• A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
• B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
• C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
• D. An incision from an open appendectomy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

3. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?

• A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
• B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
• C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
• D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.

4. After a thoracentesis on a client with a pleural effusion, which nursing intervention is most important post-procedure?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma.
• C. Monitor vital signs and respiratory status.
• D. Instruct the client to rest and limit physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma. After a thoracentesis, it is crucial to monitor for any bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture site, as this can lead to complications. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is essential but is usually a delayed concern compared to the immediate risk of bleeding post-procedure. While monitoring vital signs and respiratory status (Choice C) is important, assessing for bleeding takes precedence to address any immediate complications. Instructing the client to rest and limit physical activity (Choice D) is relevant for general post-procedure care but is not the most critical intervention in this scenario.

5. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?

• A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
• B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
• C. Changes in speech and reasoning
• D. Increased intracranial pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.

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