what is the pathophysiology of type i diabetes

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What causes type I diabetes?

A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis?

A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before eating or drinking anything other than water. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with milk as it can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

3. A patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of IV ganciclovir 3 days ago. When reviewing this patient's most recent blood work, what abnormality should the nurse most likely attribute to the use of this drug?

A. Hemoglobin 17 g/dL (high normal)
B. INR 3.8 (high)
C. Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low)
D. Leukocytes 11,900/mm3 (high)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low). Ganciclovir, used to treat cytomegalovirus, is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia). This condition can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with ganciclovir therapy. High hemoglobin levels (choice A) are not commonly seen with ganciclovir treatment. INR elevation (choice B) is associated with coagulation abnormalities, which are not a typical side effect of ganciclovir. Elevated leukocyte count (choice D) is not a common consequence of ganciclovir use.

4. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?

A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.

5. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
D. Estradiol (Estrace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.