what is the pathophysiology of type i diabetes
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What causes type I diabetes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.

3. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains. These three types of birthmarks are known to fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and disappear over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis, commonly known as Mongolian spots, usually fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also called salmon patches, tend to lighten and fade as a child grows. The other choices are incorrect because they do not typically fade or regress with age.

4. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.

5. Innate resistance or immunity:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Innate resistance or immunity relies on the body's natural defenses like physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers. These barriers act as the first line of defense against pathogens and do not involve memory (choice A). Innate immunity is present from birth and does not develop over an individual's later years (choice B). Additionally, innate immunity is a rapid and nonspecific process, not a slow and specific one (choice C). Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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