ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What causes type I diabetes?
- A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
- B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
- C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
- D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.
2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
3. In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to
- A. sexual arousal.
- B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
- C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
- D. decreased cortisol levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.
4. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
- C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
- D. Risk for hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.
5. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction?
- A. Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm
- B. Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration
- C. Rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness
- D. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Persistent chest pain that may radiate to the arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This pain is typically described as crushing, pressure-like, or squeezing. Choice B is incorrect because brief sternal chest pain on inspiration is not characteristic of myocardial infarction. Choice C is incorrect because rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder is not a common presentation of myocardial infarction.
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