Nursing Elites

1. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of peptic ulcer disease
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.

3. What causes osteoporosis?

• A. Poor nutrition in infancy
• B. Regularly weight-bearing exercise
• C. Bone loss, frequently during aging
• D. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is commonly caused by bone loss that occurs with aging, leading to brittle bones. Choice A, poor nutrition in infancy, is not a direct cause of osteoporosis. Choice B, regularly weight-bearing exercise, actually helps in maintaining bone density and strength, reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, cerebral palsy and associated disorders, is not a common cause of osteoporosis.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?

• A. The serum level of carbamazepine will be increased.
• B. The patient's carbamazepine should be discontinued.
• C. The patient's antiseizure medication should be changed.
• D. The patient will require a higher dosage of itraconazole (Sporanox).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.

5. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:

• A. Immunosuppression
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by peripheral edema, which results from the buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid accumulates in the extremities due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Immunosuppression is not a typical feature of right-sided heart failure. Pulmonary edema is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is a symptom that can be present in various conditions but is not a defining characteristic of right-sided heart failure.

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