Nursing Elites

1. What causes type I diabetes?

• A. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas
• B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin
• C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance
• D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type I diabetes is caused by the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an inability to produce insulin. This results in a lack of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as type I diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin production, not overproduction. Choice C describes the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes, where insulin receptors become less responsive to insulin. Choice D is unrelated to type I diabetes as it describes a pituitary tumor causing increased antidiuretic hormone production.

2. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. History of myocardial infarction
• C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
• D. Use of nitrates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.

3. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. A brain infection
• B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
• C. Decreased albumin blood levels
• D. Untreated chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.

5. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

• A. Between 96% and 98%
• B. Approximately 98.5%
• C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
• D. Nearly 100%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

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