an adult male has a new diagnosis of guillain barre syndrome the nurse knows which pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the
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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank

1. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

2. Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a classic example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, allergens trigger an immediate immune response mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This reaction can result in symptoms ranging from mild itching and hives to severe conditions like anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening emergency. The other options, such as indigestion (choice B), beta cell destruction (choice C), and ABO transfusion reaction (choice D), are not classified as Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Indigestion is typically related to gastrointestinal disturbances, beta cell destruction is associated with autoimmune conditions like type 1 diabetes, and ABO transfusion reaction involves antibodies targeting incompatible blood groups, which is a different immune mechanism compared to Type 1 hypersensitivity.

3. Which of the following describes passive immunity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect in a patient with hyperaldosteronism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would suspect hyperkalemia. Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased potassium excretion, resulting in low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, choices A (Hyponatremia), B (Hypernatremia), and D (Hypercalcemia) are incorrect. Hyponatremia refers to low sodium levels, Hypernatremia refers to high sodium levels, and Hypercalcemia refers to high calcium levels, none of which are typically associated with hyperaldosteronism.

5. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.

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