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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following correctly identifies the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems?
- A. Phagocytic, interferon, and complement systems.
- B. Complement, fibrinolytic, and clotting systems.
- C. Complement, clotting, and kinin systems.
- D. Complement, clotting, and acute phase reactant systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complement, clotting, and kinin systems. These are the three main plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. The complement system helps in inflammation and immune responses, the clotting system is involved in blood coagulation, and the kinin system regulates inflammation and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because interferon is not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems. Choice B is incorrect because the fibrinolytic system is not a primary inflammatory mediator system. Choice D is incorrect because acute phase reactants are not part of the plasma protein inflammatory mediator systems.
2. Ivermectin (Stromectol) appears on a list of a patient's recent medications. The nurse who is reviewing the medications is justified in suspecting that the patient may have been receiving treatment for a parasitic infection with
- A. Entamoeba histolytica.
- B. Giardia lamblia.
- C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
- D. Plasmodium falciparum.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ivermectin (Stromectol) is commonly used to treat parasitic infections, particularly Strongyloides stercoralis. This parasitic infection is known to respond well to Ivermectin therapy. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis and is typically treated with antiprotozoal drugs like metronidazole, not Ivermectin. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite causing giardiasis, which is usually treated with medications like metronidazole or tinidazole, not Ivermectin. Plasmodium falciparum is a malaria-causing parasite and is not treated with Ivermectin but with antimalarial medications like chloroquine or artemisinin-based combination therapies.
3. What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?
- A. Anemia
- B. Recurrent infections
- C. Hypersensitivity
- D. Autoantibody production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.
4. A patient is starting on a new oral contraceptive. What should the nurse emphasize about the timing of the medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning. Choice C is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential, but it should be at the same time each day. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to reach peak effectiveness, so it is important to emphasize the need for consistent timing.
5. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?
- A. Your hand will likely heal without the need for a skin graft.
- B. You might experience a loss of sensation in your hand after it heals.
- C. Be sure to keep your hand elevated to reduce swelling.
- D. We will need to monitor you for infection as your hand heals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.
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