Nursing Elites

1. A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?

• A. General visceral efferent neurons
• B. Preganglionic neurons
• C. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
• D. Pharyngeal efferent neurons

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pharyngeal efferent neurons. Pharyngeal efferent neurons are responsible for controlling head movements, including side-to-side motions. General visceral efferent neurons (Choice A) are involved in innervating smooth muscles and glands in the body's internal organs. Preganglionic neurons (Choice B) are part of the autonomic nervous system and connect the central nervous system to the ganglia. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (Choice C) are the second neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway, responsible for innervating target organs. In this case, the issue with moving the head from side to side indicates a problem with the pharyngeal efferent neurons.

2. The early stages of atheroma development are characterized by:

• A. macrophages full of oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL; i.e., foam cells) in the intima
• B. accumulation of lipids in the intima (i.e., fatty streak)
• C. accumulation of proteins such as collagen and elastin (i.e., fibrous cap)
• D. development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of atheroma development, macrophages accumulate oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and transform into foam cells, leading to the formation of fatty streaks in the intima of blood vessels. This process is a hallmark of the initial stages of atherosclerosis. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the accumulation of lipids in the intima, which is a later event following foam cell formation. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to the accumulation of proteins forming the fibrous cap, which occurs at a later stage to stabilize the atheroma. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core, typically seen in advanced atherosclerosis rather than the early stages.

3. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

• A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
• B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
• C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
• D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

4. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

• A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• B. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
• C. Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)
• D. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.

5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.

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