Nursing Elites

1. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of cryptococcosis in a patient with HIV being treated with Amphotericin B, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

• A. Neurological assessment
• B. Functional assessment
• C. Nutritional assessment
• D. Cardiac assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with cryptococcosis and HIV, neurological assessment should be prioritized because cryptococcosis commonly affects the central nervous system, leading to symptoms such as headache, confusion, and altered mental status. This assessment is crucial in monitoring for any neurological complications and guiding appropriate interventions. Functional assessment focuses on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living and is not directly associated with cryptococcosis. Nutritional assessment is important for overall health but is not the priority when assessing for cryptococcosis. Cardiac assessment is not a priority in cryptococcosis as the primary manifestations are related to the central nervous system.

2. What is the action of amphotericin B?

• A. It binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the membrane.
• B. It binds to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol.
• C. It disrupts the fungal cell walls rather than the cell membrane.
• D. It inhibits glucan synthetase required for glucan synthesis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication that acts by binding to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that disrupt the integrity of the membrane. This action leads to leakage of cellular contents and ultimately cell death. Choice B is incorrect as amphotericin B does not bind to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol. Choice C is incorrect as the drug primarily affects the cell membrane rather than the cell wall. Choice D is also incorrect as amphotericin B does not inhibit glucan synthetase.

3. The early stages of atheroma development are characterized by:

• A. macrophages full of oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL; i.e., foam cells) in the intima
• B. accumulation of lipids in the intima (i.e., fatty streak)
• C. accumulation of proteins such as collagen and elastin (i.e., fibrous cap)
• D. development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of atheroma development, macrophages accumulate oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and transform into foam cells, leading to the formation of fatty streaks in the intima of blood vessels. This process is a hallmark of the initial stages of atherosclerosis. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the accumulation of lipids in the intima, which is a later event following foam cell formation. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to the accumulation of proteins forming the fibrous cap, which occurs at a later stage to stabilize the atheroma. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core, typically seen in advanced atherosclerosis rather than the early stages.

4. Stress-induced cortisol hormone secretion is associated with:

• A. Increased growth hormone level
• B. Regulation of the stress response
• C. Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone
• D. Depressed adrenal gland function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regulation of the stress response. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating the body's response to stress by modulating various physiological processes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stress-induced cortisol hormone secretion is not directly associated with increased growth hormone levels, increased thyroid-stimulating hormone, or depressed adrenal gland function.

5. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer pain relief medication.
• B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
• C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
• D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.

Similar Questions