Nursing Elites

1. An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?

• A. Cytokines perform phagocytosis in response to bacterial and protozoal infections.
• B. Cytokines perform a regulatory role in the development of diverse blood cells.
• C. Cytokines play a significant role in the formation of all blood cells.
• D. Cytokines are produced in response to the presence of antibodies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.

2. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

• A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
• B. A 65-year-old man who drove a taxi most of his life
• C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
• D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is more common in younger patients with a history of smoking at a younger age, like the 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency as COPD in these cases is more likely due to smoking and environmental exposures.

3. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

• A. Herpes simplex I virus
• B. Bullous impetigo
• C. Necrotizing fasciitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.

4. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is being considered for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. Discuss the potential for increased bone density.
• B. Discuss the potential for an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
• C. Discuss the potential for a reduced risk of breast cancer.
• D. Discuss the potential for improved mood and energy levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including venous thromboembolism. Patients with a history of venous thromboembolism are at higher risk, so discussing this potential risk is crucial. Choice A, increased bone density, is not a major risk of HRT. Choice C, reduced risk of breast cancer, is not a common discussion point regarding HRT risks. Choice D, improved mood and energy levels, is more related to the benefits of HRT rather than its risks.

5. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?

• A. The client will not be able to distinguish between the two points.
• B. The client will feel only one point of contact.
• C. The client will accurately identify both points.
• D. The client will report no sensation in the touched areas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.

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