an oncology nurse is providing for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised the nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?

A. Cytokines perform phagocytosis in response to bacterial and protozoal infections.
B. Cytokines perform a regulatory role in the development of diverse blood cells.
C. Cytokines play a significant role in the formation of all blood cells.
D. Cytokines are produced in response to the presence of antibodies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?

A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.

3. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:

A. higher amounts of albuminuria.
B. negligible hematuria or absence of hematuria.
C. presence of red blood cell casts in the urine.
D. hypoalbuminemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

4. What best describes sepsis?

A. An overwhelming allergic reaction
B. Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins
C. Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.

5. What should the nurse assess in a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives?

A. Adherence to the medication schedule
B. The possibility of pregnancy
C. The need for an increased dosage
D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, the nurse should assess the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of non-adherence, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the contraceptives. Assessing the adherence to the schedule helps in determining if the medication is being taken correctly. The possibility of pregnancy (choice B) is less likely if the patient has been taking the contraceptives as prescribed. Increasing the dosage (choice C) without assessing adherence first can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (choice D) comes after assessing adherence to the schedule.