Nursing Elites

1. An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?

• A. Cytokines perform phagocytosis in response to bacterial and protozoal infections.
• B. Cytokines perform a regulatory role in the development of diverse blood cells.
• C. Cytokines play a significant role in the formation of all blood cells.
• D. Cytokines are produced in response to the presence of antibodies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.

2. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

• A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
• B. Presence of unexpected cell types
• C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
• D. Abnormally high numbers of cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

3. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?

• A. To produce energy in the form of ATP
• B. To synthesize proteins
• C. To store genetic information
• D. To regulate cell growth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.

4. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Hypertensive crisis
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

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