which of the following causes hepatic encephalopathy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.

3. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.

4. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

5. A patient is being educated about sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil should not be taken with medications containing nitrates, such as nitroglycerin, due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because priapism (prolonged erection) is a serious side effect but does not require immediate intervention like severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it correctly identifies a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice D is incorrect because not all over-the-counter medications are safe to take with sildenafil, and interactions can occur.

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