ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. A brain infection
- B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
- C. Decreased albumin blood levels
- D. Untreated chronic bronchitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
2. What is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma?
- A. Infection
- B. Allergic reaction
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. High altitude
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An allergic reaction is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients. When individuals with asthma come in contact with allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, it can lead to an allergic reaction that triggers bronchospasm. Infections, excessive exercise, and high altitudes can exacerbate asthma symptoms, but they are not the most common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients.
3. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:
- A. an ominous sign.
- B. normal and termed the postictal period.
- C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
- D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.
4. An older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to. You know that normal changes associated with aging include:
- A. Improved blood flow
- B. Slowed metabolic rate
- C. Increased brain weight
- D. Improved nerve fiber conduction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Normal changes associated with aging include a slowed metabolic rate and decreased brain weight. Option A, 'Improved blood flow,' is incorrect as aging is generally associated with reduced vascular health rather than improved blood flow. Option D, 'Improved nerve fiber conduction,' is incorrect as aging typically leads to a decline in nerve function rather than improvement.
5. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
- A. Contain no RNA or DNA
- B. Are capable of independent reproduction
- C. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
- D. Are killed easily by antimicrobials
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.
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