which of the following causes hepatic encephalopathy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. In emphysema, what features result in impaired oxygenation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In emphysema, impaired oxygenation results from enlarged and permanently inflated alveoli, leading to reduced surface area for gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In emphysema, bronchioles are not typically filled with mucus, alveoli losing surfactant and collapsing is more characteristic of conditions like atelectasis, and purulent fluid accumulation in the bronchioles is commonly seen in conditions like pneumonia, not emphysema.

3. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

4. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.

5. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.

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