ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?
- A. Observe the patient taking the medications.
- B. Administer the medications parenterally.
- C. Instruct the family on the medication regimen.
- D. Count the number of tablets in the bottle daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.
2. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?
- A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
- B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
- C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
- D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.
3. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?
- A. Temporal arteritis
- B. Trigeminal neuralgia
- C. Migraine headache
- D. Cluster headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.
4. After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
- A. Are easily treated with penicillin
- B. Are extremely rare
- C. Never occur with other infections
- D. Are commonly opportunistic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Are commonly opportunistic.' Fungi causing deep or systemic infections are commonly opportunistic, particularly in individuals with compromised immune systems. Choice A is incorrect because fungi infections are not easily treated with penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as deep or systemic fungal infections are not extremely rare. Choice C is incorrect as fungal infections can co-occur with other infections.
5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.
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