Nursing Elites

1. What occurs in a client with polycythemia?

• A. Deficient plasma in the blood
• B. Increased lymphatic fluid being produced
• C. Increased red blood cells being produced
• D. Deficient number of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased red blood cells being produced. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an elevated number of red blood cells in the blood. This increased concentration of red blood cells can lead to blood thickening and potentially result in complications such as blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because polycythemia does not involve deficient plasma, increased lymphatic fluid production, or a deficient number of red blood cells.

2. A 56-year-old woman has been experiencing memory loss and confusion for the past year. The client is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Which finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Neurofibrillary tangles in the brain
• B. Demyelination of neurons in the brain
• C. Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques
• D. Formation of Lewy bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques in the brain. These plaques are formed from the buildup of beta-amyloid protein fragments between nerve cells. Choice A, neurofibrillary tangles, are a hallmark of another neurodegenerative disease called Alzheimer's disease. Choice B, demyelination of neurons, is more characteristic of diseases like multiple sclerosis. Choice D, formation of Lewy bodies, is associated with Lewy body dementia, not Alzheimer's disease.

3. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

• A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
• B. Presence of unexpected cell types
• C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
• D. Abnormally high numbers of cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

4. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

• A. 48 hours.
• B. a week to 10 days.
• C. 2 to 3 weeks.
• D. 4 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

5. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.

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