Nursing Elites

1. What occurs in a client with polycythemia?

• A. Deficient plasma in the blood
• B. Increased lymphatic fluid being produced
• C. Increased red blood cells being produced
• D. Deficient number of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased red blood cells being produced. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an elevated number of red blood cells in the blood. This increased concentration of red blood cells can lead to blood thickening and potentially result in complications such as blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because polycythemia does not involve deficient plasma, increased lymphatic fluid production, or a deficient number of red blood cells.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?

• A. The serum level of carbamazepine will be increased.
• B. The patient's carbamazepine should be discontinued.
• C. The patient's antiseizure medication should be changed.
• D. The patient will require a higher dosage of itraconazole (Sporanox).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.

3. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

4. What specific instructions should the nurse provide to ensure proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
• C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
• D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before eating or drinking anything other than water. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with milk as it can interfere with its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

5. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

• A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
• B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
• C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
• D. An incision from an open appendectomy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

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