Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
• C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
• D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

2. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

• A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
• B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
• C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
• D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

3. A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass. He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?

• A. Merkel cell
• B. Schwann cell
• C. Reed-Sternberg cell
• D. Kupffer cell

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma. These large abnormal cells have a bi-lobed or multi-lobed nucleus and are essential for diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma through histological examination. Merkel cells are associated with Merkel cell carcinoma, Schwann cells are related to nerve sheaths, and Kupffer cells are liver macrophages. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?

• A. Liver dysfunction
• B. Kidney dysfunction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.

5. How are antibodies produced?

• A. B cells
• B. T cells
• C. Helper cells
• D. Memory cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antibodies are produced by B cells. B cells are specialized white blood cells that generate antibodies as part of the immune response. B cells differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies. T cells play a role in cell-mediated immunity, not antibody production. Helper cells, or helper T cells, assist in activating B cells but do not directly produce antibodies. Memory cells store information about previous infections but do not actively produce antibodies.

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