ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy
- B. The patient's adherence to the medication schedule
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.
2. The early stages of atheroma development are characterized by:
- A. macrophages full of oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL; i.e., foam cells) in the intima
- B. accumulation of lipids in the intima (i.e., fatty streak)
- C. accumulation of proteins such as collagen and elastin (i.e., fibrous cap)
- D. development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of atheroma development, macrophages accumulate oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and transform into foam cells, leading to the formation of fatty streaks in the intima of blood vessels. This process is a hallmark of the initial stages of atherosclerosis. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the accumulation of lipids in the intima, which is a later event following foam cell formation. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to the accumulation of proteins forming the fibrous cap, which occurs at a later stage to stabilize the atheroma. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core, typically seen in advanced atherosclerosis rather than the early stages.
3. What best describes sepsis?
- A. An overwhelming allergic reaction
- B. Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins
- C. Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
- D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.
4. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Profound diaphoresis
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Flu-like symptoms
- D. Cyanosis and pallor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.
5. Which physiologic response is most likely to accompany activation of the parasympathetic nervous system?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased gastric motility
- C. Pupil dilation
- D. Sweating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased gastric motility. The parasympathetic nervous system is known to promote rest and digest functions, which includes increasing gastric motility to aid in digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are more characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate (Choice A), pupil dilation (Choice C), and sweating (Choice D) among other responses.
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